CHAPTER 01 

Question 1 

Living things _____. 

A) respond to stimuli 

B) reproduce 

C) have adaptations 

x D) all of the above 

Question 2 

The smallest unit of matter that can enter into chemical combination is a _____. 

A) cell 

x B) atom 

C) molecule 

D) neutron 

Question 3 

The smallest living unit is a _____. 

x A) cell 

B) atom 

C) molecule 

D) tissue 

Question 4 

Similar cells with a similar function describes a _____. 

A) organ 

B) population 

x C) tissue 

D) organ system 

Question 5 

All of the gray squirrels in a temperate deciduous forest are referred to as a _____. 

A) community 

x B) population 

C) ecosystem 

Question 6 

Atoms contain molecules. 

A) True 

x B) False 

Question 7 

Unicellular organisms cannot respond to their environment. 

A) True 

x B) False 

Question 8 

The ultimate source of energy for nearly all living things is _____. 

A) fossil fuels 

x B) the sun 

C) thermal vents 

D) water 

2 

Question 10 

The ability to respond _____. 

A) ensures survival of the organism 

B) allows the organism to carry on its daily activities 

x C) both A and B 

Question 12 

Only plants are able to capture solar energy and carry on photosynthesis. 

A) True 

x B) False 

Question 13 

The process that transforms solar energy into chemical energy in the bonds of organic molecules is 

called _____. 

A) metabolism 

B) homeostasis 

x C) photosynthesis 

D) natural selection 

Question 20 

Natural selection results in genetic changes in _____. 

A) an organism 

B) a species' members 

x C) both A and B 

Question 21 

Organisms become better suited to a particular environment through the process of _____. 

A) artificial selection 

B) homeostasis 

x C) natural selection 

D) metabolism 

Question 23 

The great diversity of life forms is the result of _____. 

A) adaptations to different environments 

B) descent from a common ancestor 

x C) both A and B 

Question 24 

A species is defined as a group of _____. 

A) similarly sized organisms 

x B) interbreeding individuals 

C) organisms that share a common ancestor 

D) sexually reproducing organisms 

Question 25 

Communities are static and unchanging. 

A) True 

x B) False 

Question 26 

An ecosystem is comprised of _____. 

A) the physical environment 

B) interacting populations 

x C) both A and B 

Question 27 

Energy flows through an ecosystem and is eventually converted to heat. 

x A) True 

B) False 

Question 28 

The cycling of nutrients through ecosystems depends on _____. 

A) decomposition of organisms after they die 

B) respiration 

C) photosynthesis 

x D) all of the above 

Question 29 

Which are the most complex ecosystems? 

A) coral reefs 

B) deserts 

x C) tropical rain forests 

D) savannahs 

Question 36 

The most inclusive group of organisms is a _____. 

A) species 

B) phylum 

x C) domain 

D) kingdom 

Question 39 

The correct way to write the scientific name of the garden pea is _____. 

A) Pisum Sativum 

B) PISUM SATIVUM 

x C) Pisum sativum 

D) PISUM sativum 

CHAPTER 02 

Question 1 

Which of the following elements is NOT one of the six that make up 98% of most organisms' body 

weight? 

A) hydrogen 

B) nitrogen 

C) carbon 

x D) iron 

Question 2 

All atoms of a certain element have the same number of protons. 

x A) True 

B) False 

Question 5 

Protons have a __________ electrical charge. 

x A) positive 

B) negative 

C) neutral 

Question 6 

Electrons always have the same amount of potential energy. 

x A) True 

B) False 

Question 14 

The nucleus contains ________. 

A) protons 

B) electrons 

C) neutrons 

x D) A and C 

Question 25 

In a __________ covalent bond, two atoms share two pairs of electrons. 

A) single 

x B) double 

C) triple 

Question 28 

Which of the following is an example of a compound? 

A) O2 

B) Na+ 

x C) CO2 

D) Ne 

Question 35 

Energy is __________. 

A) required for a bond to form 

B) released when a bond is broken 

x C) A and B 

Question 43 

A pH of 7 is _____. 

A) acidic 

B) basic 

x C) neutral 

Question 44 

Which of the following has a basic pH? 

A) lemon juice 

x B) milk of magnesia 

C) tomatoes 

D) hydrochloric acid 

Question 54 

Any pH below _____ is acidic. 

A) one 

B) five 

x C) seven 

D) twelve 

Question 55 

Acid rain is a problem because ___________. 

A) it adversely affects fish living in lakes 

B) it weakens trees by leaching away nutrients 

C) it damages marble and limestone buildings and monuments 

x D) all of the above 

Question 56 

Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides combine with atmospheric water to produce sulfuric acid and 

nitric acid which falls to earth as acid rain. 

x A) True 

B) False 

Question 57 

Which of the following is an example of an acid? 

x A) HCl 

B) NaCl 

C) NaOH 

D) CO2 

7 

CHAPTER 03 

Question 1 

The chemistry of carbon allows the formation of varied organic molecules which accounts for _____. 

A) the sameness of living things 

B) the diversity of living things 

x C) both A and B 

Question 2 

Which of the following is considered a macromolecule? 

x A) nucleic acid 

B) amino acid 

C) fatty acid 

D) none of the above 

Question 3 

Organic molecules are ones that always contain __________. 

A) carbon and nitrogen 

x B) hydrogen and carbon 

C) hydrogen and phosphorus 

D) carbon and potassium 

Question 4 

Inorganic molecules do not affect living things. 

A) True 

x B) False 

Question 5 

Which of the following is NOT one of the classes of primary organic molecules? 

A) carbohydrates 

B) proteins 

x C) salts 

D) nucleic acids 

Question 7 

Since carbon has four electrons in its outermost shell it can bind to as many as _____ other atoms. 

A) two 

x B) four 

C) six 

D) eight 

Question 13 

Carbons only bond with other carbons in a chain-like formation. 

x A) True 

B) False 

Question 16 

Carbohydrates include all of the following EXCEPT ______. 

A) ribose 

B) glucose 

x C) phospholipid 

D) starch 

8 

Question 19 

Cellulose is easily digested by humans. 

A) True 

x B) False 

Question 26 

Carbohydrates are commonly described as _____. 

A) oils 

B) waxes 

x C) sugars 

D) proteins 

Question 28 

Fats from plants are liquid at room temperature. 

x A) True 

B) False 

Question 35 

The plasma membrane is primarily composed of _____. 

x A) phospholipids 

B) waxes 

C) fats 

D) all of the above 

Question 39 

Which of the following can bring about a change in protein shape? 

A) temperature 

B) pH 

x C) either A or B 

Question 40 

The monomers of proteins are _____. 

x A) amino acids 

B) monosaccharides 

C) glycerol 

D) nucleotides 

Question 44 

When you boil an egg, the white becomes hard because the albumin protein is denatured by the 

heat. 

x A) True 

B) False 

Question 49 

Once a protein has been denatured it will never regain its normal shape and function. 

A) True 

x B) False 

Question 51 

DNA is single-stranded, but RNA is double-stranded. 

A) True 

x B) False 

9 

Question 52 

In DNA, the number of purine bases always equals the number of pyrimidine bases. 

x A) True 

B) False 

Question 56 

The two strands of DNA are held together by _____ between the purine and pyrimidine bases. 

A) ionic bonds 

x B) hydrogen bonds 

C) covalent bonds 

Question 57 

The nucleotide that supplies energy for condensation synthesis is _____. 

A) adenosine triphosphate 

B) guanine 

C) thymine 

D) cytosine 

Question 59 

DNA contains _____ type(s) of nucleotide(s). 

A) one 

B) two 

C) three 

x D) four 

10 

CHAPTER 20 

Question 1 

The branch of biology that is concerned with identifying, naming and classifying organisms is called 

_____. 

A) taxidermy 

B) ecology 

C) systematics 

D) taxonomy 

Question 4 

The first word in an organism's binomial name refers to the _____. 

A) family 

B) species 

C) genus 

D) kingdom 

Question 5 

Latin scientific names identify specific organisms whose common names may vary from country to 

country. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 20 

The most inclusive category of classification is _____. 

A) species 

B) kingdom 

C) domain 

D) class 

Question 21 

Organisms in a particular classification category have _____ features in common. 

A) structural 

B) molecular 

C) chromosomal 

D) all of the above 

Question 24 

Organisms in the class Mammalia all have _____. 

A) milk producing mammary glands 

B) cells with a membrane-bounded nucleus 

C) a dorsal hollow nerve cord 

D) all of the above 

Question 27 

When two species are closely related they _____. 

A) share a gene pool 

B) share a common ancestor 

C) interbreed 

D) all of the above 

17 

Question 28 

A _____ character is present in the common ancestor and all members of a group. 

A) primitive 

B) derived 

Question 35 

During DNA hybridization, the more _____ related two species are, the better the DNA strands stick 

together. 

A) distantly 

B) closely 

Question 54 

The five kingdoms are distinguished on the basis of type of _____. 

A) cell 

B) nutrition 

C) level of organization 

D) all of the above 

Question 67 

Which of the following categories of classification is higher than the kingdom category? 

A) superorder 

B) division 

C) domain 

D) species 

18 

CHAPTER 24 

Question 1 

Plants are best described as _____. 

A) heterotrophic 

B) multicellular 

C) prokaryotic 

D) chemoautotrophic 

Question 2 

Plants more easily obtain _____on land. 

A) sunlight 

B) carbon dioxide 

C) both A and B 

Question 4 

All plants have a vascular system that transports water up to and nutrients down from the leaves. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 5 

Some plants protect their embryos inside _____. 

A) a seed 

B) pollen grains 

C) an amniote egg 

D) a cuticle 

Question 12 

Plants produce heterogametes. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 30 

Mosses are found growing in _____. 

A) damp, shaded areas in the temperate zone 

B) deserts 

C) bogs and streams 

D) all of the above 

Question 34 

Which of the following are vascular plants? 

A) gymnosperms 

B) ferns and their allies 

C) angiosperms 

D) all of the above 

Question 36 

Which of the following do not produced seeds? 

A) gymnosperms 

B) angiosperms 

C) ferns and their allies 

19 

D) none of the above 

Question 37 

Seeds are dispersed by _____. 

A) wind 

B) animals 

C) water 

D) all of the above 

Question 41 

According to the fossil record the last group of plants to evolve were the _____. 

A) gymnosperms 

B) mosses 

C) ferns 

D) angiosperms 

Question 51 

Conifers are the most prevalent of the gymnosperms. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 53 

Gymnosperms and angiosperms _____. 

A) are vascular plants 

B) produce seeds 

C) produce heterospores 

D) all of the above 

Question 57 

The seeds of gymnosperms are enclosed within a fruit. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 70 

The _____ are a subgroup of angiosperms. 

A) conifers 

B) monocots 

C) club moss 

D) liverworts 

Question 71 

There are more species of angiosperms than all other plant groups combined. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 74 

Flowers disperse their pollen by _____. 

A) insects 

B) wind 

C) butterflies 

D) all of the above 

Question 76 

Which of the following is an example of an angiosperm? 

A) an oak tree 

20 

B) corn 

C) a lily 

D) all of the above 

Question 77 

The dicotyledons ______. 

A) have parallel veins in their leaves 

B) have two seed leaves 

C) are exemplified by grasses 

D) flower parts in threes 

Question 78 

Angiosperms are adapted to a limited number of habitats and are not widely dispersed. 

A) True 

B) False 

21 

CHAPTER 30 

Question 14 

Mollusks are __________. 

A) marine 

B) freshwater 

C) terrestrial 

D) all of the above 

Question 18 

Clams, oysters, mussels, and scallops are all bivalves. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 29 

The active lifestyle of the cephalopods is supported by _____. 

A) a closed circulatory system 

B) well-developed sense organs 

C) both A and B 

Question 30 

An example of a cephalopod is a _____. 

A) snail 

B) scallop 

C) sea slug 

D) squid 

Question 31 

The _____ are the molluscs that have an elongated flat foot. 

A) gastropods 

B) bivalves 

C) crustaceans 

D) cephalopods 

Question 33 

Gastropods are all aquatic organisms. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 53 

The most successful of all animals are considered to be the _____. 

A) arthropods 

B) annelids 

C) cephalopods 

D) none of the above 

Question 57 

Arthropods are characterized by _____. 

A) jointed appendages 

B) a muscular foot 

C) cnidocytes which capture prey 

D) all of the above 

22 

Question 61 

Arthropods have _____ eyes. 

A) simple 

B) compound 

C) both A and B 

Question 68 

Crustaceans are mostly marine animals. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 81 

Which of the following is an example of an echinoderm? 

A) octopus 

B) tunicate 

C) shrimp 

D) sea cucumber 

Question 88 

If you cut a sea star in half _____. 

A) it will die 

B) each half will become a whole sea star 

23 

CHAPTER 31 

Question 1 

The invertebrate chordates are most closely related to the _____. 

A) annelids 

B) cnidarians 

C) echinoderms 

D) molluscs 

Question 2 

Which of the following is not characteristic of chordates? 

A) bilateral symmetry 

B) a tail 

C) a ventral nerve cord 

D) a true coelom 

Question 7 

The invertebrate chordates are marine animals. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 10 

All chordates are vertebrates. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 11 

The evolution of jaws allowed some vertebrates to take up a predatory way of life. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 12 

Vertebrates are chordates. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 13 

The vertebrate skeleton _____. 

A) is a living tissue which grows with the animal 

B) protects internal organs 

C) serves as a place of attachment for muscles 

D) all of the above 

Question 15 

Vertebrates have a _____ circulatory system. 

A) open 

B) closed 

Question 19 

An example of a cartilaginous fish is a _____. 

A) shark 

B) hagfish 

24 

C) trout 

D) seahorse 

Question 20 

Sharks and rays have a great ability to detect their prey because they _____. 

A) can sense electric currents in the water 

B) have a lateral line system 

C) have a very good sense of smell 

D) all of the above 

Question 23 

The most successful and diverse vertebrates are the _____. 

A) cartilaginous fish 

B) reptiles 

C) mammals 

D) ray-finned fish 

Question 24 

Bony fish _____. 

A) have a skeleton of cartilage 

B) have a swim bladder 

C) perform internal fertilization and development 

D) all of the above 

Question 30 

One hypothesis about the evolution of amphibians suggests that lobe-finned fish were lured onto 

land by a large supply of food and the absence of predators. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 32 

Salamanders and newts are _____. 

A) herbivores 

B) parasites 

C) producers 

D) carnivores 

Question 33 

Fish have a _____ chamber heart. 

A) two 

B) three 

C) four 

D) none of the above 

Question 34 

Amphibians use their skin for _____. 

A) temperature regulation 

B) discouragement of predators 

C) respiration 

D) all of the above 

Question 37 

Amphibians exchange gases with _____. 

A) relatively small lungs 

25 

B) gills 

C) thin moist skin 

D) all of the above 

Question 39 

The reproduction of reptiles is not dependent on water because they _____. 

A) practice internal fertilization 

B) produce an amniote egg 

C) both A and B 

Question 40 

The protective skin of reptiles _____. 

A) prevents water loss 

B) requires several molts a year 

C) is keratinized 

D) all of the above 

Question 45 

Birds' beaks and foot types correlate with their habitat and behavior as exemplified by _____. 

A) birds of prey with webbed toes and broad bills 

B) shorebirds with long slender probing bills and long stiltlike legs 

C) songbirds with notched beaks and sharp talons 

D) woodpeckers with wings modified as paddles 

Question 46 

Birds' feathers are actually modified reptilian scales. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 51 

Birds have well-developed sense organs and nervous system to support flying. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 52 

Birds have a _____ chamber heart. 

A) one 

B) two 

C) three 

D) four 

Question 53 

Mammals are believed to have evolved from _____. 

A) birds 

B) amphibians 

C) therapsids 

D) lobe-finned fish 

Question 54 

Mammals are distinguished from other vertebrates by their _____. 

A) four chamber hearts 

B) hair and milk-producing mammary glands 

C) high metabolism 

D) internal fertilization 

26 

Question 56 

Mammals like the duckbill platypus and spiny anteater that lay hard shelled eggs are called _____. 

A) monotremes 

B) marsupials 

C) placental mammals 

Question 57 

Today, most marsupials are found in Australia. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 58 

Offspring that are born at a relatively advanced stage of development is associated with _____. 

A) monotremes 

B) marsupials 

C) placental mammals 

Question 59 

The order _____ includes humans. 

A) Cetacea 

B) Carnivora 

C) Rodentia 

D) Primates 

Question 60 

The number of mammalian species is small compared to the number of molluscs. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 61 

Both birds and mammals _____. 

A) have efficient respiratory systems 

B) have four chamber hearts 

C) are endothermic 

D) all of the above 

27 

CHAPTER 32 

Question 1 

The phylogenetic tree of the primate order began in the late _____ era. 

A) Cenozoic 

B) Mesozoic 

C) Paleozoic 

D) Precambrian 

Question 2 

Evolution suggests that modern humans and apes evolved from a common apelike ancestor NOT 

that humans evolved from apes. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 3 

Scientists have found that human evolution is entirely different from that of other species. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 4 

The sense of smell is of primary importance in primates. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 5 

Which of the following is true of primate vision? 

A) in most primates, the eyes are at the front of the head 

B) cone cells are active in dim light, but the image is blurry and gray 

C) binocular vision hinders primates' ability to accurately judge the distance and position of 

things 

D) none of the above 

Question 6 

Which of the following is responsible for the powerful and precise grip of humans? 

A) five digits 

B) opposable thumbs 

C) sensitive pads on the underside of the fingers 

D) flat nails 

Question 7 

Primates are well adapted for living in the _____. 

A) ocean 

B) desert 

C) arctic 

D) trees 

Question 8 

Characteristics that distinguish primates from other mammals include _____. 

A) opposable thumb 

B) nails instead of claws 

C) expanded forebrain 

28 

D) all of the above 

Question 9 

Which of the following exists today? 

A) Australopithecus afarensis 

B) Homo erectus 

C) Homo sapiens 

D) Australopithecus robustus 

Question 10 

Primates are characterized by _____. 

A) single births 

B) lengthy gestation 

C) an extended period of juvenile dependency 

D) all of the above 

Question 20 

The most human-like apes are the _____. 

A) chimpanzees 

B) orangutans 

C) gorillas 

D) gibbons 

Question 21 

Humans are most closely related to the _____ apes. 

A) Asian 

B) African 

Question 26 

Modern humans are characterized by _____. 

A) a straight spine 

B) a sloping face 

C) long arms 

D) none of the above 

Question 28 

The phrase mosaic evolution is used to describe human evolution because some body parts are 

more humanlike than others in early hominids. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 46 

If tool manufacture and use seems evident fossils are assigned to the species Homo. 

A) True 

B) False 

29 

CHAPTER 46 

Question 3 

Silver maples, red oaks, red wolves, deer, robins, bluejays, a fresh water stream, river otters, black 

rat snakes, various soil bacteria and fungi, loamy soil, and lots of rain in the spring could describe 

a(n) _____. 

A) population 

B) community 

C) ecosystem 

D) biosphere 

Question 4 

A population consists of all the organisms within an area belonging to the same species. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 5 

Ecology is the study of _____. 

A) animal structures and functions of those structures 

B) how organisms adapt to a changing environment 

C) the interactions between organisms and the physical environment 

D) how living things are organized and classified 

Question 7 

Which of the following is a possible application of ecological principles? 

A) the reintroduction of wolves into Yellowstone National Park to control elk numbers 

B) genetically engineering bacteria to produce human insulin 

C) using the fermentation process of yeast to make beer 

D) none of the above 

Question 10 

Most populations are distributed _____. 

A) uniformly 

B) randomly 

C) in clumps 

Question 11 

The territoriality of birds causes _____ distribution of the organisms. 

A) random 

B) clumped 

C) uniform 

Question 12 

Only abiotic factors can be limiting factors. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 13 

When ecologists study the abiotic components of the environment they are studying _____. 

A) all organisms 

B) all predators 

C) soil, water, and weather 

30 

D) all organisms, soil, water, and weather 

Question 15 

All the various species interacting in a location make up a(n) _____. 

A) population 

B) community 

C) ecosystem 

D) biosphere 

Question 16 

Ecology and _____ are closely intertwined because ecological interactions act as selective agents. 

A) bioengineering 

B) taxonomy 

C) evolution 

D) pathology 

Question 19 

Populations increase in size when _____. 

A) the birth rate exceeds the death rate 

B) emigration exceeds immigration 

C) mortality exceeds natality 

Question 24 

A population will experience its biotic potential when _____. 

A) resources are limited 

B) there is plenty of room for each member of the population 

C) the members harbor a parasite 

D) all of the above 

Question 25 

A population can continue to grow exponentially forever. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 26 

Growth is slow during the lag phase because the population is small. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 27 

Populations are prevented from reaching their biotic potential by _____. 

A) a limited supply of food 

B) an accumulation of waste products 

C) predation 

D) all of the above 

Question 32 

Non-native species like kudzu, zebra mussels, and nutria experience _____ outside their native area 

due to a lack of natural predators and their ability to compete more successfully than native species 

for resources. 

A) environmental resistance 

B) extinction 

C) resource partitioning 

D) exponential growth 

31 

Question 33 

An environment is capable of sustaining a population of limited size. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 34 

A limiting factor like _____ may prevent a population from thriving in a particular habitat. 

A) temperature 

B) food supply 

C) altitude 

D) all of the above 

Question 37 

Once a population reaches its carrying capacity its size remains stable. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 45 

Which of the following will limit a population's growth? 

A) parasitism 

B) plenty of room for each organism 

C) unlimited resources 

D) none of the above 

Question 46 

The ability of many populations to reproduce far exceeds the number necessary to replace the 

organisms that die. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 49 

When the _____ group is the largest of the three groups the birthrate is higher than the death rate. 

A) prereproductive 

B) reproductive 

C) postreproductive 

Question 51 

The fact that predation increases as population size of prey increases is a(n) ______ factor. 

A) density-dependent 

B) density-independent 

C) abiotic 

D) both A and C 

Question 52 

Which of the following is an intrinsic factor that affects population size and growth rate? 

A) availability of food 

B) weather conditions 

C) the presence of parasites 

D) territoriality 

Question 65 

The current world population of humans is _____ billion. 

A) one 

B) three 

C) six 

32 

D) nine 

Question 66 

Some of the more-developed countries are actually decreasing in size. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 67 

Less-developed countries, which are expanding rapidly, would have a(n) _____ age structure 

diagram. 

A) pyramid-shaped 

B) bell-shaped 

C) urn-shaped 

Question 68 

The human population has a _____ pattern of growth. 

A) logistic 

B) exponential 

Question 69 

If each couple has two children zero population growth will take place immediately. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 70 

Less-developed countries are expanding rapidly because they have more women entering the 

reproductive years than there are older women leaving them. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 72 

Environmental impact is measured in terms of _____. 

A) population size 

B) resource consumption 

C) waste production 

D) all of the above 

33 

CHAPTER 47 

Question 1 

The diversity of a community is a function of _____. 

A) the number of species in the community 

B) the relative abundance of the individuals of different species 

C) both A and B 

Question 2 

Communities closer to the equator are richer (more diverse) than those farther away from the 

equator. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 3 

A community is _____. 

A) all members of one species in a particular location 

B) all autotrophs within the same environment 

C) a collection of different species that interact with each other in a specific location 

D) all the abiotic features of an environment 

Question 6 

Community composition is dependent on _____. 

A) climate 

B) the supply of inorganic nutrients 

C) the amount of available space 

D) all of the above 

Question 9 

The theory of island biogeography is applicable to conservation efforts because the larger a 

conserved area is the better chance there is of preserving more species. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 10 

A tropical rainforest supports more species than a coniferous forest because of its stratified canopy. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 11 

Which of the following statements about islands is true? 

A) the size of the island does not affect the number of species found on it 

B) a large island has greater extinction rate than a small island 

C) an island close to the mainland will experience more immigration than an island far away 

D) all of the above 

Question 13 

Which of the following is a type of interaction seen in a community? 

A) competition 

B) predator-prey 

C) parasitism 

D) all of the above 

34 

CHAPTER 48 

Question 2 

Energy _____ an ecosystem. 

A) flows through 

B) cycles within 

Question 3 

The atmosphere contains _____ which is needed for photosynthesis. 

A) nitrogen 

B) oxygen 

C) carbon dioxide 

D) all of the above 

Question 4 

In the upper atmosphere _____ becomes ozone , a substance that protects the earth from UV 

radiation and makes life on land possible. 

A) nitrogen 

B) oxygen 

C) carbon dioxide 

Question 5 

Organisms are classified into trophic levels according to _____. 

A) where they live 

B) the source of their nutrients 

C) how much they weigh 

D) all of the above 

Question 6 

The oceans help keep the temperature on earth suitable to life. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 7 

Algae are producers in aquatic ecosystems. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 8 

Omnivores feed on _____. 

A) plants 

B) animals 

C) both A and B 

Question 10 

Which of the following is a producer? 

A) a cow 

B) a mushroom 

C) a beetle 

D) an oak tree 

Question 11 

35 

Carnivores are primary consumers. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 12 

Organisms that use inorganic nutrients and an outside energy source to produce sugars and other 

organic nutrients for themselves and other members of the community are _____. 

A) autotrophs 

B) producers 

C) heterotrophs 

D) both A and B 

Question 15 

Tertiary consumers feed on _____. 

A) producers 

B) primary consumers 

C) secondary consumers 

D) none of the above 

Question 16 

Inorganic nutrients are released from dead organic matter and animal wastes by _____. 

A) decomposers 

B) secondary consumers 

C) producers 

D) autotrophs 

Question 18 

An omnivore is a primary consumer if it eats blackberries but it is a secondary consumer if it eats a 

rabbit. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 19 

Consumers are _____. 

A) heterotrophs 

B) autotrophs 

Question 20 

Nutrients _____ through an ecosystem 

A) flow 

B) cycle 

Question 21 

Energy flow begins when consumers absorb solar energy. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 22 

The loss of energy as heat as energy is transformed from one form to another means ecosystems 

require a continual supply of solar energy. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 23 

36 

All of the energy captured and stored in organic molecules by the producers is passed on to the 

consumers. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 24 

Energy flows through an ecosystem because each time it is transformed from one form to another 

some is lost as heat. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 25 

Solar energy is first transformed by _____ when it enters an ecosystem. 

A) producers 

B) primary consumers 

C) secondary consumers 

D) detritivores 

Question 26 

As nutrients cycle through an ecosystem inorganic nutrients are returned to autotrophs by _____. 

A) producers 

B) primary consumers 

C) top predators 

D) detritivores 

Question 41 

A grazing food web might begin with _____. 

A) mushrooms 

B) earthworms 

C) sugar maples 

D) all of the above 

Question 43 

Nitrogen is needed to produce _____. 

A) amino acids 

B) nucleic acids 

C) both A and B 

37 

CHAPTER 49 

Question 1 

The tilt of the earth on its axis as it rotates around the sun accounts for _____. 

A) the seasons of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres 

B) the absence of seasons at the equator 

C) both A and B 

Question 3 

The trade winds are a result of _____. 

A) variations in solar reception 

B) the tilt of the earth's axis as it rotates around the sun 

C) the spinning of the earth on its axis 

D) none of the above 

Question 4 

The distribution of biomes in the biosphere is dependent upon _____. 

A) the distribution of land masses and oceans 

B) variations in solar radiation reception due to a spherical earth 

C) topography features 

D) all of the above 

Question 5 

The tropics are warmer than temperate regions because the sun's ray are more direct at the 

equator. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 9 

The same type of biome can occur in different regions of the world. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 10 

The biomes savanna and tropical rainforest have a similar _____. 

A) mean annual precipitation 

B) mean annual temperature 

C) both A and B 

Question 12 

A biome has ____. 

A) a characteristic group of animals 

B) a characteristic group of plants 

C) specific environmental conditions 

D) all of the above 

Question 13 

The pattern of life on earth is primarily determined by climate. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 14 

38 

Biomes change _____. 

A) with latitude 

B) gradually from one type to another 

C) with altitude 

D) all of the above 

Question 15 

If you travel from the equator to the South Pole it is possible to encounter a tropical rain forest, 

followed by a temperate deciduous forest, a coniferous forest, and tundra. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 20 

Based on rainfall amounts the tundra is comparable to a _____. 

A) temperate deciduous forest 

B) desert 

C) estuary 

D) prairie 

Question 22 

Which of the following is not found in the tundra? 

A) caribou 

B) lichens 

C) pine trees 

Question 23 

The biome closest to the polar region is the _____. 

A) savanna 

B) taiga 

C) tundra 

D) shrubland 

Question 24 

The trees of a coniferous forest are well adapted to the cold. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 25 

The taiga is typified by _____. 

A) permafrost that is always frozen 

B) conifers 

C) deciduous trees 

D) a large and varied assemblage of grazers 

Question 26 

Which is the most complex biome? 

A) the taiga 

B) the tropical rain forest 

C) the temperate deciduous forest 

D) the tundra 

Question 27 

Trees of the taiga have adaptations for dealing with the cold like _____. 

A) needlelike leaves 

B) leaves and bark with thick coverings 

39 

C) both A and B 

Question 28 

Coniferous forests are found _____. 

A) at the base of mountains 

B) in southern California 

C) near the equator 

D) none of the above 

Question 29 

The biome south of the taiga is the _____. 

A) temperate deciduous forest 

B) savanna 

C) tundra 

D) chaparral 

Question 30 

There is an extensive understory in a coniferous forest. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 35 

Trees which lose their leaves in the fall are characteristic of _____. 

A) desert 

B) savannas 

C) temperate deciduous forests 

D) shrublands 

Question 36 

Which of these characterizes a temperate deciduous forest? 

A) amphibians and reptiles 

B) plentiful ground life 

X C) lots of leaf litter 

D) all of the above 

Question 37 

Enough sunlight penetrates the canopy of a temperate deciduous forest for an understory of trees to 

survive. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 38 

The large quantity of leaf litter created in a temperate deciduous forest means _____. 

A) there will be very few detritivores 

B) there will be a rich layer of humus 

C) less energy is lost as heat 

D) all of the above 

Question 39 

Which best describes a temperate deciduous forest? 

A) the seasons are well defined 

B) there is a very short growing season 

C) low rainfall 

D) all of the above 

40 

Question 41 

The biome found in much of Europe is _____. 

A) chaparral 

B) desert 

C) temperate deciduous forest 

D) grassland 

Question 43 

Most animals live on the ground in a tropical rainforest. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 44 

The biome with the greatest number of different species is a _____. 

A) tundra 

B) tropical rainforest 

C) savanna 

D) taiga 

Question 46 

A variety of beautifully colored birds is characteristic of a _____. 

A) tropical rainforest 

B) tundra 

C) savanna 

D) desert 

Question 47 

Tropical rainforests _____. 

A) receive a lot of rainfall: >190cm/year. 

B) experience warm weather year round 

C) are near the equator 

D) all of the above 

Question 48 

The trees in the tropical rainforest _____. 

A) have broad leaves 

B) become very tall: 15-50 meters or more 

C) may be supported by lianas or woody vines 

D) all of the above 

Question 49 

All species that reside in tropical rainforests have been identified and classified. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 50 

Tropical forests in India, Southeast Asia, West Africa, South and Central America have wet and dry 

seasons. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 67 

An estuary has brackish water. 

A) True 

B) False 

41 

Question 70 

Coral reefs are threatened by _____. 

A) overfishing 

B) ocean pollution 

C) a loss of natural predators 

D) all of the above 

Question 71 

Coral reefs are found in _____ waters. 

A) deep 

B) tropical 

C) fresh 

D) cold 

Question 73 

Wetlands are critical because they _____. 

A) prevent flooding 

B) provide habitats for fish, waterfowl and other wildlife 

C) breakdown toxic wastes 

D) all of the above 

42 

CHAPTER 50 

Question 1 

Conservation biology is a long established field of study. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 2 

Conservation biology is concerned with _____. 

A) developing scientific concepts about the nature and evolutionary origin of biodiversity 

B) preserving and managing ecosystems 

C) both A and B 

Question 3 

Which of the following ethical principles is supported by conservation biology? 

A) extinctions due to human actions are acceptable 

B) ecosystems should be simplified so they are more manageable 

C) biodiversity is desirable for the biosphere and humans 

D) all of the above 

Question 7 

All species on the earth have been found and classified. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 8 

The most prevalent group of organisms of the species which have been described so far is _____. 

A) primates 

B) flowering plants 

C) fish 

D) insects 

Question 9 

Biodiversity is affected by _____ diversity. 

A) landscape 

B) genetic 

C) community 

D) all of the above 

Question 11 

A number of interacting ecosystems is referred to as a _____. 

A) community 

B) landscape 

C) panorama 

D) domain 

Question 15 

A habitat corridor _____. 

A) connects patches of ecosystems 

B) may help preserve animals that migrate between different ecosystems in a landscape 

C) both A and B 

43 

Question 16 

Habitat corridors maintain genetic diversity by promoting gene flow. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 17 

Regions of the world with an unusually large concentration of species are called _____. 

A) nature preserves 

B) cloud forests 

C) landscapes 

D) biodiversity hotspots 

Question 18 

Biodiversity is highest _____. 

A) at the poles 

B) at the tropics 

Question 19 

Community disruption tends to affect only one species. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 20 

A population that has limited _____ diversity is much more likely to become extinct. 

A) genetic 

B) community 

C) landscape 

Question 29 

A direct value of biodiversity to humans is _____. 

A) new medicines for treatment of diseases 

B) waste disposal 

C) climate regulation 

D) prevention of soil erosion 

Question 32 

Soil erosion _____. 

A) increases following deforestation 

B) is decreasing the productivity of estuaries 

C) both A and B 

Question 35 

Deforestation tends to offset the rise in carbon dioxide. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 36 

The value of biodiversity to humans is obvious and fully appreciated by all people. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 38 

Habitat loss is the result of _____. 

A) slash and burn agriculture in rainforests 

B) timber production 

44 

C) mining 

D) all of the above 

Question 39 

Habitat loss is a concern only for terrestrial species. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 46 

Alien species experience _____ when introduced to a new ecosystem. 

A) extinction 

B) exponential growth 

C) secondary succession 

D) character displacement 

Question 47 

Pollution directly causes extinctions and can also indirectly cause extinction by making organisms 

more susceptible to disease. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 56 

Global warming is caused by _____. 

A) consumption of fossil fuels 

B) deforestation 

C) methane production 

D) all of the above 

Question 57 

Which is associated with air pollution? 

A) global warming 

B) destruction of the ozone shield 

C) acid deposition 

D) all of the above 

Question 58 

Overfishing of one or two species of fish affects only those species of fish being harvested. 

A) True 

B) False 

Question 64 

Endemic species are _____. 

A) found in every ecosystem 

B) found in one particular location 

C) aquatic organisms 

D) terrestrial organisms 

Question 65 

Keystone species _____. 

A) are the most numerous in a community 

B) are producers 

C) greatly influence the viability of the community 

D) can be removed from a community without affecting other species 

Question 66 

45 

Which of the following would be designated a keystone species? 

A) alligators 

B) grizzlies 

C) elephants 

D) all of the above 

Question 73 

Which of the following statements about the edge effect is true? 

A) all areas of an ecosystem are exactly the same 

B) a small and large patch have different amounts of edge 

C) the edges around a patch have a slightly different habitat than the interior of a patch 

D) none of the above 

Question 74 

When determining population viability, researchers must know _____. 

A) the minimum population size to prevent extinction 

B) the size needed to maintain genetic diversity 

C) life history characteristics of the population 

D) all of the above 

Question 75 

How much habitat a species requires to maintain itself can be determined by doing a _____ analysis. 

A) gap 

B) population viability 

Question 78 

Which of the following is a goal of restoration ecology? 

A) mimic natural processes to bring about restoration 

B) find new species with which to restock damaged ecosystems 

C) remove humans from the most severely damaged ecosystems 

D) all of the above